Propagating The Truth: Sovereign Grace

There have been many through the centuries who have been confused about the teaching of James on the role "works" play in a believer's being "justified" in God's sight.  This confusion stems from the fact that it appears as though James contradicts Paul's explicit teaching that we who believe in and on Jesus Christ are NOT justified by "works". Since Paul uses Abraham as one of his primary examples of someone who was justified "by faith" and NOT "by works", and Abraham lived over 400 years before the Law of Moses was given, it is incorrect to understand Paul to merely be saying, we are not justified by the works "OF THE LAW" as some suggest. The idea here, according to some,  is that while Paul denies "works of the Law" as being the basis of justification, he limits his point only to those types of works specifically. But he did not mean to exclude "works OF FAITH" - which James picks up on. Those who argue this way show both a fundamental ignorance of what Paul actually said and meant, as well as what James did. Their argument, from a scriptural perspective at least, therefore utterly breaks down for the following reasons:

THE WORKS OF THE LAW:

I. "THE LAW" called for faith in and obedience to God as the Supreme Lord and worship of Him alone. This is explicitly declared in the 1st commandment. Jesus affirmed that the "greatest commandment" in the Law (though not one of the "Ten" per say) was, "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, all your soul and all your strength." Since it is impossible to keep either the "first" or the "greatest" commandment apart from faith in God, which the LAW presupposed in its commandments,  then this convenient distinction that many often cite to try and verify the idea that we are "justified by works OF FAITH", as opposed to "works OF THE LAW" is shown to be erroneous. This distinction simply does not exist!

II. "THE LAW" called for the same principles James mentioned, when it said we are to "love your neighbour as yourself". James deals with this in principle, when he mentions the inconsistency of claiming to have "faith" in God, but not be willing to help supply the necessities of life to a brother or sister. So, James is not suggesting that "works of faith" are somehow different or of another type than works "of the Law". In fact, James appeals to the Law when he states, "If you fulfill the royal law of scripture -'You shall love your neighbour as yourself', you do well" (Jas 2: 8). Therefore, make no mistake about it, when James mentions "works", he is not using the term in any way that is qualitatively different from what the Law had called for all along. James appeals to the Law other places as well, like where he states, "For he who shall keep the whole LAW, yet stumbles in just one point, is guilty of the whole LAW" (Jas 2: 10). James therefore, intends to mean "works" of a similar type as the Law commanded!

PAUL ON THE ROLE OF THE LAW:

III. Paul makes the following statements, "For we conclude that a man is justified by faith, apart from the deeds of the Law" (Rom 3: 28); and again, "If Abraham our father was justified by works, he has something to boast about - but not before God" (Rom 4: 2),; again,  "Now to the one who does not work, but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness" (Rom 4: 5). Paul says that he came to the conclusion that man is justified "by faith" and apart from/without the deeds of the LAW. If this was his "conclusion", then having weighed the scriptural and philosophical arguments carefully, he concluded the doctrine which came to be known as of "Sola Fide" (Faith Alone) by the Reformers. Please understand carefully, that Paul here plainly states and insists that  even when or if a man is attempting to "love God with all his heart, soul, mind and strength", when he is striving to "have no other god's before God", when he is fighting to "not covet", and when he is seeking to "love his neighbour as himself" etc., - when a person is actively engaged in any or  all of these "works prescribed by the Law", on or by his own effort or initiative or "will-power",  he is not and indeed CANNOT be "justified" in God's sight! As long as we miss the truth of what Paul says about the LAW, and  assume he only referred to the external, ceremonial, ritual parts of the LAW (something Paul and the LAW itself explicit denied), we will come to incorrect conclusions. But when we see the LAW for what it is and represents - human attampts to please God obedience to His moral will, we will understand just how significant Paul's statements above actually are! All this being true, then how seriously does God intend us to take the solemn statement of Isaiah that "All our righteousness is as filthy rags"? (Isa 64: 6). If God views our attempts at righteousness as "flthy rags", where does that place our sins?  Paul is emphatic, "Therefore by the deeds of the LAW shall no flesh be justified in His sight, for by the LAW is the knowledge of sin" (Rom 3: 20). Then Paul is adamant; "I do not frustrate (set aside) the grace of God, for IF RIGHTEOUSNESS COMES THROUGH THE LAW, then Christ died for nothing!" (Gal 2: 21) 

Why is this? Paul answers, "The LAW brings wrath" (Rom 4: 15). The LAW did not command people to "try" and keep it. It merely commanded OBEDIENCE...not "attempts" or "partial". The reason why it "brings wrath" is because no one can keep it! In the precise context of stressing our need to abide in Him as the Living Life-Giving "Vine", in order to "bear fruit", Jesus made perhaps His most sweepingly categorical statement concerning the utter impotence of human will-power and strength. He said, "For without Me, you can NOTHING." (Jn 15: 5). But to the one who does NONE of these "works" prescribed and commanded by the LAW, but simply believes, that person is justified in the sight of God! Is it any wonder that Paul states the gospel is a "STUMBLING STONE" and a "ROCK OF OFFENCE"? This type of "accounting" is offensive to the mentality of a carnal, self-righteous mindset, which assumes it is capable of obeying God's LAW and or of doing anything by its own power that could please Him.

THE MORAL OR CEREMONIAL LAW?

Some, trying to evade what Paul so obviously said suggest that when he states we are not "justified by the deeds of the LAW", he only meant the  external "ceremonial" or "ritual" parts, not the moral ones. But in the book of Galatians, Paul expressly repudiates this idea when he reminds the Galatians that the Law itself did  not allow such a distinction, and placed a curse on anyone who "does not continue in ALL the things of the LAW to do them" (Gal 3: 10). So what Paul is really saying in all this, as Luther so correctly observed in his outstanding work "On The Bondage Of The Will", is that Paul denies justification to people when they are at their very BEST morally and spiritually speaking. When they are engaged in striving to "keep" the Law of God, they are not and in fact CANNOT be justified - "Therefore by the deeds of the LAW, shall no flesh be justified, for by the LAW is the knowledge of sin" (Rom 3:  20).  Apart from His own grace operating within and through the sinner, NOTHING we do can be acceptable in the sight of God. It is only AFTER we have been "justified freely by His grace, through faith" that the good works which He has "prepared in advance that we should do" can be considered "good" in His sight. They are good, because they are the consequence of His own grace operating within us, by faith, and we by that same grace through faith, are now JUSTIFIED in His sight.

SOLA FIDE!

Now,  although Paul does not use the precise phrase "faith alone", as Luther and the Reformers did,  Paul clearly means and intends it! For what else can it mean to say, "To him who does not work, but believes"? or to say, "David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom the Lord credits righteousness apart from works" (Rom 4: 6) ? Thus, whether by "works of faith" or "works of the Law" - for Paul mentions both, Paul categorically denies that they have any bearing on the basis of our justification before God! "Works" therefore of any type or kind, do not and cannot justifiy anyone in God's sight.  Thus, the truth of the great Reformation doctrine of "Sola Fide" (Faith ALONE) was clearly and unambiguously taught and stressed by Paul.

But did not Abraham's work of offering up his son Isaac - or at least being prepared to do so, "justify" him in God's sight? James points to this and says that Abraham was justified when he offered up Isaac and that his works "completed" his faith in this regard.  But this does NOT contradict or annul the truth of Sola Fide. Because when Abraham was declared "righteous" in the sight of God, was at least 25 years before Isaac was born! When God said He "credited righteousness" to Abraham, when Abraham "believed God", Abraham was 75 years old. When Isaac was born, Abraham was 100 and the "test" with Isaac came several years later when Isaac was at least able to walk, talk and reason. Abrham was not put on some type of PROVISONAL/PROBATIONAL justification for all that time. His standing as a "righteous" man was not merely PENDING in the sight of God until the one moment with Isaac! No. He was  fully justified! There is no such thing as a patial "justification" either. Either one is declared to be JUST or RIGHTEOUS or not. There is no legal "middle ground". This BIBLICAL TRUTH  is where Luther got his "simul justus et peccatore" (simultaneously just and sinner) phrase from. Since Abraham ws fully justified the moment he "believed God", and his one act of obedience came ovr 30 years later, James is not intending us to understand that works - whether works of the LAW of or FAITH contribute to or add to or provide for the BASIS of WHY we are justfied in the sight of God.

WHAT DOES JAMES 2: 24 MEAN THEN?

This being true, how then are we to understand James summary statement, "So you see then, how that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone" (Jas 2: 24)? The answer lies in the two-fold meaning of the Greek word for "justify" which is "diakoun" and which means 1. To declare or regard to be just or righteous; 2. To show to be just.  When Paul therefore,  uses "diaikou" in the passages wherein he states that we are justified "apart from" and  "not of" works, he intends "justified" in its 1st meaning -  "to be declared to be, or regarded to be just",  in God's sight! God declares the sinner who believes to be "just" or righteous in His sight, solely on the basis of faith in Jesus Christ. Faith alone justifies us in this sense, since it is ONLY the perfect righteousness of Jesus and His work of perfect atonement on the cross, which pays for sin and satisfies the justice of a holy, righteous God. Since faith is the ONLY thing which "links" us to Jesus and His work of atonement for us (which is the ONLY basis of forgiveness in God's sight), we are said to be justified by "faith alone", because the BASIS of justification is not our own works, but Christ's work on our behalf!  

When James says we are justified "by works" and not "by faith alone", he is not contradicting Paul (though it can appear as though he is), because he intends "justified" in its 2nd meaning - to SHOW (evidence) as righteous. James is correct here. While it is possible for a sinner to be declared to be "justified" in God's sight, solely on the basis of faith in Jesus, it is not possible to show or evidence that person to be justified apart from the works which spring from faith. This is WHY Jesus said, "Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father in heaven" (Matt 5: 16). Jesus does not say this so that men can look at us and assume we are somehow meriting our salvation by our "good works"! Such an idea would be blasphemy! No, Jesus intends that by means of our "good works" - which must necessarily include our testimony of the GRACE of God as being the SOLE  basis of and for them (1 Cor 15: 10)  and without which testimony they could not be considered "good" in His sight - that men see that the reason for our good works is ONLY the the grace of God! When they see this, they will, as He said, "glorify your Father in heaven." Without this singularly all-important element of "testifying to the GRACE of God" as being the sole basis of our good works,  included alongside, in and with our "works of faith" themselves, then while they may appear to be "good" in the sight of men, they will ultimately be shown to be mere "wood, hay and straw" at the Judgment seat of Christ, rather than "gold, silver, precious stones" (1 Cor 3: 12 - 15).  James undersdtands this and in speaking of our WALK as believers, before MEN, and not to or concerning the state of our relationship to God,  says works "complete" our faith. He also says "Faith without works is dead (useless)".

Too many people though, read what James says here and take it out of his intended context. In so doing, they invent a context James does not intend and make his statements here to be ABSOLUTES, rather than mere principles - true, yet general. Why do I say this? Because if James is understood to be stating an ABSOLUTE truth, there is no reconcilliation with Paul, who denies any and all works as being the basis of our being declared to be "just" in God's sight. If James is ABSOLUTE, there is a profound and irreconcialable contradiction in the New Testament on the most important subject there is - why and how those who are saved are so. If James is ABSOULTE, then Abraham could not have been justified the moment he believed God (and as yet had done no good works to verify his faith). He could only be justified the moment he was ready to kill Isaac. If James is ABSOLUTE, Jesus was incorrect when He stated that a Tax-Collector who merely stood before God in the temple and cried "God be merciful to me a sinner!" was forgiven and "went home justified". For there were no works of "completion", or "merit" or "verification" offered, peformed or even promised by this sinner! There was simply an acknowledgment of guilt and an appeal for mercy! Jesus did not say he went down to his home "potentially justified". He was justified! But if that faith which does indeed justify is truely God-breathed, Spirit-bestowed and grace-empowered, it will inevitably and invariably be made manifest in the sight of men, by some good works which evidence it to others. Remember, Jesus said our light is to shine "before men". Not so that they honour us ourselves, but so that by our testifying as to their cause and source - the grace and mercy of God, we lift Him and they praise Him!

Thus, it is of paramount importance that we truly understand and continually testify that it is GRACE and grace alone, which is the sole cause and basis of ALL our "works of faith" in His name. And in fact, is the sole basis for why and how we who do believe do so in the first place! Without this understanding and testimony - which Paul stressed (1 Cor 15: 10), we will sin by both ignorance and arrogance and assume credit to ourselves where none is due, and in so doing, will even if inadvertantly, rob God of the supreme glory and praise He alone deserves!

Thus, when considered in each ones intended context, we see that there is in fact, no disagreement or contradiction between James and Paul on the subject of "justification by faith" (to declare/regard as just), and "justification by works" (to show, demonstrate as just). And as such, there is no way - from a biblical perspective at least, to escape the foundational truth which came to be the rallying cry of the Protestant Reformation, which was SOLA FIDE! And this singular doctrine, so offensive to the self-righteous, credit-seeking, self-exalting carnal nature of sinful men, is indeed the ESSENTIAL truth of the Gospel of GRACE Paul preached!